if a house(x)having two slap for 35lakhs. Then for building house of only one slap how much money we required?? ​

Question

if a house(x)having two slap for 35lakhs. Then for building house of only one slap how much money we required??

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Maya 1 month 2021-08-12T19:29:39+00:00 2 Answers 0 views 0

Answers ( )

    0
    2021-08-12T19:30:42+00:00

    Answer:

    17.5 lakhs

    Step-by-step explanation:

    see,

    for two slap it is 35 lakhs…

    so for one slap we divide 35 by 2…

    Mark me as the brainiest and follow me…

    0
    2021-08-12T19:31:07+00:00

    Answer:

    17.5 lakhs

    it will be half of 35 lakhs because the no. of slaps are also halved

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