the meromorphic function f(z)=1\(z-a) has​

Question

the meromorphic function f(z)=1\(z-a) has​

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Ruby 4 weeks 2021-11-06T09:44:53+00:00 1 Answer 0 views 0

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    2021-11-06T09:46:36+00:00

    Answer:

    The meromorphic function f(z) = 1/(z-a) has a simple pole at z=a.

    Hope that helps you out.

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